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Indian Express
a day ago
- Politics
- Indian Express
UPSC Key: Removal of Chief Election Commissioner, Creamy Layer and Sixth Schedule
Important topics and their relevance in UPSC CSE exam for August 19, 2025. If you missed the August 18, 2025, UPSC CSE exam key from the Indian Express, read it here. Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance. Main Examination: General Studies-II: Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies. What's the ongoing story: Taking exception to Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) Gyanesh Kumar's comments at a press conference a day earlier, the INDIA bloc of Opposition parties on Monday said it was considering 'both legal and Constitutional measures' against the poll panel chief. Key Points to Ponder: — What are the constitutional provisions related to the Election Commission of India? — How is the Chief Election Commission different from the other Election Commission? — What is the process of selection of CEC? How does the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, elaborate the selection of the Chief Election Commissioner? — How is a CEC removed? — How did the constitution provide for the independence of constitutional bodies like the Election Commission? — Examine the role of the judiciary in ensuring the independence of the Election Commission. — Read about the Special Intensive Revision (SIR). Key Takeaways: — It is learnt that the Opposition is considering moving a notice for an impeachment motion against Kumar, whom it accused of 'talking like a BJP spokesperson' instead of answering questions on the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Bihar and alleged voter-list irregularities. On Sunday, faced with mounting questions from the Opposition, Kumar asked Lok Sabha Leader of Opposition (LoP) Rahul Gandhi to either submit allegations of vote theft on a sworn affidavit or apologise to the nation. — The CEC can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge, as stated in Article 324(5) of the Constitution. The process is also set down in Section 11 of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023. — Article 324(5) states that 'the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and the conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment'. — It further provides that 'any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner'. — The grounds for the removal of the CEC and other Election Commissioners (ECs) are also set down in Section 11 of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, which regulates the appointment, conditions of service and term of office of the CEC and the ECs. — The Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, Section 3, which pertains to 'Investigation into misbehaviour or incapacity of Judge by Committee' provides that 'If notice is given of a motion for presenting an address to President praying for the removal of a Judge…(a) in the case of a notice given in the House of the People, by not less than one hundred members of that House; (b) in the case of a notice given in the Council of States, by not less than fifty members of that Council…' — Following this, the Act states further, the Speaker or, as the case may be, the Chairman may, after consulting such persons, if any, as he thinks fit and after considering such materials, if any, as may be available to him, either admit the motion or refuse to admit the same.' — If the motion is admitted, the Speaker or, as the case may be, the Chairman 'shall keep the motion pending and constitute, as soon as may be, for the purpose of making an investigation into the grounds on which the removal of a Judge is prayed for, a Committee consisting of three members'. — One of the members 'shall be chosen from among the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court', one from among the Chief Justices of the High Courts, and one 'a person who is, in the opinion of, the Speaker or, as the case may be, the Chairman, a distinguished jurist'. — This Committee 'shall frame definite charges against the Judge on the basis of which the investigation is proposed to be held' and such charges 'together with a statement of the grounds on which each such charge is based shall be communicated to the Judge and he shall be given a reasonable opportunity of presenting a written statement of defence within such time as may be specified in this behalf by the Committee.' — For an impeachment motion to be accepted, at least two-thirds of those 'present and voting' in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha must vote in favour of removing the judge, and the number of votes in favour must be more than 50% of the 'total membership' of each House. If Parliament passes such a vote, the President will pass an order for the removal of the judge, or in this case, the CEC. Do You Know: — The Part XV of Constitution of India deals with Elections. It has the following articles (Articles 324–329) to empower the Election Commission and provide insight into the potential roles and functions of the commission. — Article 324: The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and the Legislature of every state and of elections to the offices of President and Vice-President. — Article 325: No individual to be excluded from electoral rolls on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex or any of them. — Article 326: Adult suffrage shall be the basis for elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States. — Article 327: Parliament may, according to the provisions of this Constitution, from time to time enact laws with respect to all matters relating to elections to Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of States. — Article 328: A state's Legislature may from time to time by law make provision with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, the elections to the House or either House of the Legislature. — Article 329: The article prohibits the courts from becoming involved in electoral matters. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Opposition considers motion to remove Chief Election Commissioner: What is the process? 📍Election Commission of India is one of the greatest gifts of the Constitution Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme: (1) Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2017) 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Previous year UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme: Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. (UPSC CSE 2022) Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Constitution of India —historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure. What's the ongoing story: The Gauhati High Court, in a hearing last week, made sharp observations about the allotment of 3,000 bighas of land (around 4 square kilometres) in Assam's tribal Dima Hasao district to a private company to set up a cement factory. Key Points to Ponder: — What is the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? — What is the purpose of the Autonomous District Councils (ADCs)? — What is the composition of ADCs? — How does the constitution provide for the protection of the rights of tribes? — Which article provides for the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution? — The Sixth schedule is applicable to which states of India? Key Takeaways: — The Court directed the state to furnish the policy under which 'such a huge chunk of land' has been allotted for the purpose in a region under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. — Dima Hasao is a tribal majority hill district in Assam, administered through provisions under the 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitution with an autonomous council, the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council (NCHAC). — In October 2024, a plot of land measuring 2,000 bighas was allotted to Mahabal Cement Private Limited, a private company with its registered address in Kolkata, and in November that year, it was allotted another adjacent plot of 1,000 bighas of land. — Incidentally, Mahabal Cement had signed an MoU for investment worth Rs 11,000 crore with the state during the Assam government's mega investment summit, Advantage Assam 2.0, in February this year, in which a company spokesperson had said that they would set up a cement plant in Dima Hasao. — In its order, the court referred to the size of the allotted land as 'extraordinary'. — Directing the state to provide information on the allotment process, the court also noted the rights of tribal residents of the area concerned, as well as its environmental sensitivity. — The Umrangso region in Dima Hasao has widespread coal, limestone and granite quarrying activities and a cement plant. Do You Know: — The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 provides for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions — Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) — that have some legislative, judicial, and administrative autonomy within a state. — ADCs have up to 30 members with a term of five years, and can make laws, rules and regulations with regard to land, forest, water, agriculture, village councils, health, sanitation, village- and town-level policing, inheritance, marriage and divorce, social customs and mining, etc. — The Bodoland Territorial Council in Assam is an exception with more than 40 members and the right to make laws on 39 issues. — The Sixth Schedule applies to the Northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram (three Councils each), and Tripura (one Council). Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Explained: What is the Sixth Schedule, and can Ladakh be included under it? 📍Explained: Ladakh, Article 371, and the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme: (2) The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes (b) determine the boundaries between States (c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats (d) protect the interests of all the border States Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Constitution, Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. What's the ongoing story: The government is considering ways to ensure 'equivalence' in the application of the 'creamy layer' condition in reservations for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) across a range of jobs at central and state government organisations, public sector enterprises, universities, etc. Key Points to Ponder: — Who are the Other Backward Classes (OBCs)? — What are the constitutional provisions related to the OBCs? — Read about the Mandal Commission, its recommendations and landmark verdict in Indra Sawhney vs Union of India (1992). — What is the concept of 'creamy layer'? — What is the debate about the 'creamy layer' in SC, and ST reservations? — The term 'Socially and Educationally Backward Classes' appears in which part of the Indian Constitution? — Why is there a need to ensure 'equivalence' in the application of the 'creamy layer' condition in reservations for OBCs across a range of jobs? — Read about the National Commission for Backward Classes. Key Takeaways: — The effort is to ensure fairness and uniformity among candidates who are eligible for reservation, and to remove certain anomalies that have arisen in this regard from circulars issued over the years by the Union government's Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which formulates policy on recruitments and service conditions. — In its landmark verdict in Indra Sawhney vs Union of India (1992), the Supreme Court upheld the government's decision to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission, but said that affluent sections among the socially and educationally backward classes, the so-called 'creamy layer', must be excluded from job quotas. — Thereafter, on September 8, 1993, DoPT issued a circular identifying the creamy layer that would be ineligible for OBC reservation. Sons and daughters of high constitutional functionaries, and government, PSU, and armed forces officers were included in the list, along with 'professional class and those engaged in trade and industry', and 'property owners'. An 'income/ wealth test' was also mentioned. — Specifically, an individual either of whose parents was a direct recruit to a Group A/ Class I government job, or if the parent was promoted to Group A before the age of 40, was not eligible for the OBC quota. — An individual both of whose parents were direct recruits to Group B jobs would be part of the creamy layer. Children of armed forces officials only up to the rank of Lieutenant Colonel could avail of the quota. — For those outside the government sector, the income ceiling was set at Rs 1 lakh per annum. It was subsequently revised upwards, and the limit has been Rs 8 lakh since 2017. However, income from salary and agricultural income is not included. — The above criteria were not comprehensive, especially with regard to jobs outside the government sector. So, on October 14, 2004, DoPT issued detailed 'Clarifications regarding creamy layer amongst OBCs'. — In late 2014, DoPT started examining caste certificates issued by various authorities to determine their compliance with the 2004 'clarification'. — Between the Civil Services Examinations (CSE) of 2015 and 2023 (batches of 2016-24), DoPT rejected caste certificates of more than 100 successful candidates who would have qualified as OBC under the September 1993 criteria, but who were put in the creamy layer in accordance with the new criteria. Interestingly, many of these individuals have appeared in other competitive examinations, and have been considered OBC on the basis of the same caste certificate. — The unresolved case of the more than 100 candidates determined by DoPT as being in the creamy layer led to consultations among various stakeholder ministries. While 'equivalence' has been established with regard to the various central PSUs, the process remains pending for others — and the sons/ daughters of a wide range of employees are put in the creamy layer based on their incomes, thanks to 'clarification' issued in 2004. Do You Know: — National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was initially constituted by the Central Govt by the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, of 1993. The act has been repealed through the National Commission for Backward Classes (Repeal) Act, 2018. — The NCBC has been accorded Constitutional Status through 'The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018, whereby Article 338-B has been inserted, forming a Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as National Commission for Backward Classes. — The Commission consists of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three other Members in the rank and pay of Secretary to the Govt of India and their condition of service and tenure of office has been notified vide Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Decode Politics: A commission on OBC sub-quota, now 'delayed' at Rashtrapati Bhavan Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme: (3) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (UPSC CSE 2023) 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above constitutional bodies? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance Mains Examination: General Studies-I: Post-independence consolidation and reorganisation within the country. What's the ongoing story: Irish President Michael D Higgins last week condemned the recent spate of racist attacks on Indian immigrants in his country, and said that Ireland's 'connections with India are neither recent nor superficial'. Key Points to Ponder: — How did the Irish freedom movement influence V.V. Giri? — What is the role of V.V. Giri in the labour movement? — What is the name of the biography of V.V Giri? — Who is the only President elected as an independent candidate? Key Takeaways: — One interesting figure in this shared history is Varahagiri Venkata Giri, who served as the President of India between 1969 and 1974. — While attending law school in Dublin from 1913 and 1917, Giri was 'drawn irresistibly into the cross currents of the Irish struggle for self-government,' he wrote in his 1976 autobiography My Life and Times. — 'Indian students preferred to study in Ireland in preference to England because there was neither a colour bar nor racial prejudice of any kind among the Irish, probably due to the adverse circumstances of their history,' he wrote. — This aside, Giri's biographer G S Bhargava in his V.V. Giri: Portrait of President (1970) also suggested a social factor. Dublin was already home to a number of Telugu-speaking students, and of the twelve Indians who accompanied Giri to Dublin in August 1913, seven were Telugu — Giri, who arrived in Ireland at a time of political upheaval, immersed himself in the politics of the country. — The labour movement in Ireland was in its full swing. Months before his arrival, Dublin had seen thousands of workers, led by trade unionist James Larkin and the Irish Transport and General Workers' Union, clash with employers over the right to unionise in the 'Dublin lock-out' of 1913. — In Dublin, he became a member of a small clandestine group called the 'Anarchical Society' which, he claimed, 'professed belief in using violence and bloodshed to achieve a peaceful end' and learned 'the techniques of incendiarism and bomb-making' to aid India's freedom struggle. — Later, influenced by Mahatma Gandhi's work in South Africa, the group would abandon violence and reorganise as the Indian Students' Association. Giri was the group's secretary for three years. — The association's semi-secret activities included publishing a pamphlet titled 'Horrors in South Africa' which sought to 'magnify acts of racial discrimination perpetrated on Indian citizens in South Africa and bring about natural sympathy for the Indian community in their struggle against the White Minority Government'. — Some 100,000 copies of the pamphlet were dispatched to India before being intercepted by customs for arousing anti-British sentiments. — The Easter Rising of 1916 saw Irish republicans begin an armed insurrection in the heart of Dublin during the height of World War I. While the insurrection was crushed and most leaders hanged to death, the event became a watershed moment in Ireland's struggle for independence. — In fact, during his time in Dublin, Giri had cultivated friendships with members of many radical Irish nationalists, including trade unionist James Connoly who would be executed for leading the Easter Rising. — Martial law in Dublin saw the police raiding Indian students' lodgings. Although nothing incriminating was found, on June 1, 1916, Giri was served with an order to leave the UK (at the time all of Ireland was a part of the UK) by July 1. — While he completed his final law examinations at the King's Inns, Giri was unable to finish his bachelors' or pursue further studies in Philadelphia as he had planned. Yet, he was not dejected when having to leave Ireland. — Less than six years later, Giri was leading the Bengal–Nagpur Railway Indian Labour Union and emerging as one of India's foremost labour leaders… The strike, in Mulvagh's eyes, bore clear echoes of Dublin's labour militancy. Do You Know: — V.V. Giri served as the fourth President of India, holding the office from August 24, 1969, to August 24, 1974. Born on August 10, 1894, in Berhampur, Odisha, Giri was a prominent figure in the Indian political landscape, known for his contributions to the labor movement and his strong advocacy for worker's rights. — Giri served as the Vice President of India from 1967 to 1969 before becoming the President of India. Notably, he was the only person to have been elected as an independent candidate to the presidency, underscoring his broad acceptability and popularity across political lines. — Throughout his career, Giri was deeply committed to the principles of social justice and equality. His work in the sphere of labor rights and his tenure as President were marked by this unwavering commitment. — He is the recipient of the Bharat Ratna 1975. He passed away on June 24, 1980. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Explained: How Irish freedom movement resonated in rebellion in Punjab UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme: (4) Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with Trade Union Movement? (UPPSC 2012) (a) V. V. Giri (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy (c) K. R. Narayanan (d) Zakir Hussain Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Constitution of India —historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure. What's the ongoing story: The Supreme Court overturned the result of the sarpanch election of Buana Lakhu village in Haryana's Panipat district on August 11. Key Points to Ponder: — What are the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)? — What are the grounds for declaring an election void? — What is the role of courts in ensuring free and fair elections? — What are the important rulings related to corrupt practices in the election? — What are the various initiatives taken by the Election Commission of India to ensure transparency and accountability in the election process? — How is the sarpanch election conducted? Key Takeaways: — The move came after the apex court conducted a recounting of votes by summoning all Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) used during the election to its premises in New Delhi. — Mohit Kumar, who had been declared as defeated in the previous result and later approached the SC, was announced the winner as he beat the originally elected sarpanch, Kuldeep Singh, by 51 votes. — Mohit challenged the initial result of the election, which took place in November 2022, alleging that a presiding officer had swapped votes between him and Kuldeep at a polling booth. Experts believe that the case marked the first instance of the SC conducting a recount of EVM votes. — The validity of the results of Parliamentary, Assembly, or state council elections can be challenged by filing an election petition before the High Court of the particular state in which the election was conducted. — Election petitions against local government elections are to be filed at the district-level civil courts. The petition can only be filed by a candidate or an elector related to the election in question. Also, it has to be filed within 45 days from the date of declaration of results. — The petition must contain a concise statement of all 'material facts' on which the challenge is based. If a petition has allegations of 'corrupt practices', it must provide details such as the names of individuals involved, and the date and place of the alleged act. — Courts can declare an election void on several grounds. This includes: • Bribery, undue influence — such as a candidate failing to disclose their criminal antecedents — or promoting enmity among social groups; • If the winning candidate was not qualified or was disqualified on the date of their election; • Improper rejection of a nomination paper of an electoral candidate. • Improper acceptance of a nomination or the improper reception or rejection of votes (but only when it is proven that these actions materially affected the election's outcome); • And non-compliance with the Constitution or any election laws and rules, if such non-compliance materially affected the result. — Courts usually order vote recounts to take place at the location where the election was held — unlike in the case of the Panipat sarpanch election dispute, in which the SC recounted the votes at its premises. — It is rare – but not unprecedented – for a court to void an election and declare another candidate as the winner. The court must be satisfied that the petitioner or another candidate received a majority of the valid votes. Do You Know: — Free and fair election is the pre-requisite for democratisation of local self-governance in India. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1993 granted constitutional status to local self-governments in urban (municipalities) and rural (panchayats) areas, and inserted provisions in the Constitution for the establishment of SECs to conduct fair and regular elections to these local bodies. — In other words, the SEC is a constitutional body responsible for conducting elections to the 3rd tier of governance, i.e. the local self-government, which includes the panchayati raj institutions and the urban local bodies. — The 73rd and 74th Amendments introduced Part IX and Part IXA in the Constitution, which deals with the structure, powers, and functions of Panchayats (Article 243 to 243O) and Municipalities (243P to 243ZG). — Article 243K in Part IX and Article 243ZA in Part IXA provide for the matters related to elections to Panchayats and Municipalities respectively. — Electronic Voting Machine (also known as EVM) is voting using electronic means to either aid or take care of the chores of casting and counting votes. An EVM is designed with two units: the control unit and the balloting unit. — These units are joined together by a cable. The control unit of the EVM is kept with the presiding officer or the polling officer. The balloting unit is kept within the voting compartment for electors to cast their votes. This is done to ensure that the polling officer verifies your identity. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍A sarpanch poll fight finally settled after 3 yrs – by an EVM recount held in SC 📍Impartial and regular elections key to strengthening local governance Previous year UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme: Discuss the procedures to decide the disputes arising out of the election of a Member of the Parliament or State Legislature under The Representation of the People Act, 1951. What are the grounds on which the election of any returned candidate may be declared void? What remedy is available to the aggrieved party against the decision? Refer to the case laws. (UPSC CSE 2022) Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance. Mains Examination: General Studies-II, III : Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India's interests, Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilisation of resources, growth, development and employment. What's the ongoing story: The Finance Ministry on Monday notified the elimination of 11 per cent duty on cotton imports with immediate effect amid widespread fears of job losses in the textile sector due to steep 50 per cent US tariffs that would leave Indian products uncompetitive in the US market, India's largest export market. Key Points to Ponder: — What is the Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess (AIDC)? — What is the share of the textile sector in the economy? — What is the contribution of the textile sector to employment? — What are the challenges facing the textile sector? — What can be the impact of recent US tariff hikes on India's textile exports? — What are the key initiatives taken by the government for the growth of the textile sector? Key Takeaways: — The government said that the elimination of import duty on cotton as well as Agriculture Infrastructure and Development Cess (AIDC) 'is necessary in the public interest' and that notification will come 'into force with effect from August 19, and shall remain in force up to and inclusive of September 30'. — The textile sector is expected to be hardest hit sector due to steep US tariffs as US is a key market for Indian Ready-Made Garments (RMG) exports; its share in India's total garment exports in 2024 stood at 33 per cent, as per the Apparel Export Promotion Council (AEPC). — As per AEPC, top three most exported products by India to US: cotton T-shirts (9.71 per cent); women's or girls' dresses of cotton (6.52 per cent); babies' garments of cotton (5.46 per cent), etc. 'The top three exports of India to the US hold 10, 36, and 20 per cent share, respectively, in the US total imports of these products globally,' the export promotion council said. — Notably, home textiles and carpets are also significant export-oriented sectors, with exports accounting for 70-75 per cent and 65-70 per cent of total sales, respectively, for these sectors. Of this, the US accounts for 60 per cent of exports for home textiles and 50 per cent of exports for carpets. — US President Donald Trump had announced a 25 per cent reciprocal tariff on Indian goods on July 30. To add to the pain of labour-intensive sectors, Trump has announced another 25 per cent tariffs on India. The additional US tariffs are set to come into effect on August 27. — Amid steep US tariffs, CITI had asked government's intervention for easier availability of raw materials, CITI pointed out that the US tariff rate for India has been set at 50 per cent and that the new US rate competing countries such as Bangladesh is 20 per cent, Indonesia and Cambodia are 19 per cent each and Vietnam is 20 per cent. Do You Know: — India's textile industry is among the largest in the world, spanning a vast value chain from cotton cultivation to high-end apparel manufacturing. — The size of India's textile and apparel industry cannot be understated—it contributes 13% to industrial production, 12% to exports, and roughly 2% to GDP. — After China, India is the second largest producer of cotton, accounting for 24% of global production. Cotton cultivation engages around 60 lakh farmers, mostly across Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana. — The entire cotton textile value chain—from processing raw fibre and spinning yarn to weaving fabric, dyeing, and stitching—employs over 4.5 crore people. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Leader in fibre production, but growth, exports lagging: What ails India's textile industry 📍Textile industry seeks short term cash flow support to ease US tariff pain UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme: Analyse the factors for highly decentralised cotton textile industry in India. ( UPSC CSE 2013) ALSO IN NEWS On the other end of the spectrum are broligarchs, a combination of bro and oligarch, denoting the 'tech-bros' who have money and are now assuming greater political power. These bros are rich and successful members of the tech world, still predominantly a boys' club. Either through personal political ambition or through the massive reach of the platforms they own, they are also serious political players, thus combining multiple types of power and influence in the sphere of the 'outside'. Delulu is short for delusional, used for people who are choosing to stay ignorant of reality. Skibidi, on the other hand, distorts reality. It is a nonsensical word, attached to nothing but absurdity. The Cambridge dictionary describes skibidi as 'a word that can have different meanings such as 'cool' or 'bad', or can be used with no real meaning as a joke.' The Bill, which was passed by the Lok Sabha on August 12, seeks to modernise the outdated provisions of the Indian Ports Act, 1908, promote integrated port development, facilitate businesses and ensure utilisation of India's coastline. Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – Indian Express UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for July 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at
India Today
2 days ago
- Politics
- India Today
How Constitution shields Chief Election Commissioner from arbitrary removal
Amid growing friction between the Congress-led Opposition and the Election Commission of India (ECI), India Today has learnt that the Opposition is considering initiating a formal notice of removal against Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar. This unprecedented move follows allegations by Leader of the Opposition Rahul Gandhi and others, accusing the Election Commission of India of large-scale 'vote theft' and procedural irregularities, especially during the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls in Bihar and the conduct of the 2024 Lok Sabha development raises questions about the removal process of a Chief Election Commissioner and the legal framework that governs office of the Chief Election Commissioner is a high constitutional post, entrusted with the responsibility of ensuring free and fair elections in the country. Given its importance, the Constitution of India provides a strong safeguard for the independence and autonomy of this office, laying down a removal process that is as stringent as that for a judge of the Supreme ON OUSTING OF CEC The primary provision governing the removal of the Chief Election Commissioner is articulated in Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India. Article 324(5) of the Constitution states, in relevant part — "...the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court..."To understand the process, one must examine Article 124(4) of the Constitution, which outlines how a Supreme Court judge may be removed. According to this provision, a judge can be removed only by an order of the President, following an address passed by each House of Parliament. The address must be supported by both an absolute majority of the total membership of the House and a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting. Removal is permitted only on grounds of 'proved misbehaviour or incapacity.'The term 'proved' is crucial, as it implies that a formal enquiry must precede any parliamentary action. A similar process applies to the Chief Election investigation and enquiry mechanism is governed by the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. Article 124(4) of the Constitution says "A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity."advertisementAlthough the Constitution does not define 'misbehaviour,' it is generally understood to include wilful misconduct, corruption, moral turpitude, abuse of office, or repeated dereliction of duty. Misbehaviour must be deliberate and sustained, not accidental or isolated. Cumulative acts that reflect a pattern may also qualify.'Incapacity,' on the other hand, refers to physical or mental conditions that render an official unfit to discharge their begin the removal process, a motion must first be introduced in either House of Parliament. It requires signatures from at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha, depending on the House in which it is submitted, the Speaker (in the Lok Sabha) or the Chairman (in the Rajya Sabha) decides whether to admit the motion. Admission does not imply guilt, but is necessary to initiate further proceedings. If admitted, a three-member enquiry committee is constituted. This committee must include a sitting judge of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished committee investigates the charges, frames specific allegations, and gives the CEC an opportunity to respond. Once the enquiry is completed, the committee submits its findings to the presiding officer of the House where the motion was the committee finds no evidence of misbehaviour or incapacity, the process ends and the motion is dropped. If the findings support the charges, the motion is presented to both Houses of Parliament along with the Houses must then debate and pass the motion with the required special majority. If the motion passes in both Houses during the same session, an address is sent to the President of India, who is constitutionally bound to remove the Chief Election is important to note that this removal mechanism is separate from other ways in which the CEC may vacate office. As per Section 4 of the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, the term of office for a CEC is six years or until the age of sixty-five, whichever is earlier. The CEC may also resign voluntarily by submitting a written resignation to the President.- Ends
Yahoo
18-07-2025
- Politics
- Yahoo
SNCO Election Commissioner talks early voting 2025 Primary Election
TOPEKA (KSNT) – The Shawnee County (SNCO) Election Commissioner, Andrew Howell, joined the 27 News morning show to discuss early voting for the 2025 Primary Election. 27 News and Commissioner Howell discussed races on the 2025 Municipal Primary Ballot, absentee ballot mailing date and application deadline and early voting dates and hours. Voters registered in Topeka city limits can expect to see Topeka Mayor on their ballots. There are 6 candidates in the primary election and the top two will move on to the November general election. Voters within City Council District 1 will also have a primary to narrow down the 6 candidates to 2. MO farmer meets deputy who saved his life during heart attack For those voting via mail in ballots: Advance Mail Ballots started being mailed out on July 16th. Voters will have until July 29th to turn in their absentee ballot application. The elections office does not suggest waiting until the deadline. Turn in your ballot either through the mail or in-person as soon as possible to make sure it is returned to the office in time. Early Voting Dates and Hours (in person): Located at 3420 SW Van Buren. Monday through Friday for early voting from 8 am to 7 pm starting July 21st. Voters can vote early Monday through Friday July 21st through August 1st Last day of early in person voting will be August 4th from 8 AM to 12 Noon. On Election Day polls will be open 7 am to 7 pm. To hear what SNCO Election Commissioner Howell had to say, you can watch the interview above. For more local news, click here. Keep up with the latest breaking news in northeast Kansas by downloading our mobile app and by signing up for our news email alerts. Sign up for our Storm Track Weather app by clicking here. Copyright 2025 Nexstar Media, Inc. All rights reserved. This material may not be published, broadcast, rewritten, or redistributed. Solve the daily Crossword
Express Tribune
04-06-2025
- General
- Express Tribune
PM Shehbaz invites Omar Ayub for consultation on new ECP chief
Listen to article Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif has invited Opposition Leader in the National Assembly Omar Ayub for a meeting to discuss the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other members of the Election Commission of Pakistan (ECP). In a letter on Wednesday, the PM highlighted that the term of CEC Sikandar Sultan Raja, along with two other members, Nisar Ahmad Durrani from Sindh and Shah Muhammad Jatoi from Balochistan, ended on January 26. However, they have continued to serve under Article 215 of the Constitution. The letter pointed out that, according to Article 218, proposals for the new CEC and members must be forwarded to the parliamentary committee. The appointment process for the CEC and members of the ECP is outlined in Article 213 of the Constitution, which mandates that the prime minister and the leader of the opposition jointly propose three names to the president for approval. In case of disagreement between the two, the prime pinister and opposition leader will submit their individual nominations to a parliamentary committee. Following this, the National Assembly speaker will establish a 12-member committee, with equal representation from both the government and opposition benches. The committee will then select one nominee to forward to the President for approval, ideally by consensus. Under Article 217, if the CEC's term expires, the senior-most member of the Commission will assume the duties of the Chief Election Commissioner. Should the senior member be unavailable, the next senior member will take over the responsibilities.
Time of India
13-05-2025
- Politics
- Time of India
CIC appointed prior to RTI Act amendment of 2019 entitled to pensionary benefits equivalent to that of retired Supreme Court judge, rules Kerala high court
Kochi: High court has directed the state govt to grant former state chief information commissioner (SCIC) Vinson M Paul , pension benefits equivalent to those of a retired Supreme Court judge or Election order was issued by a bench of Justice Harishankar V Menon on a petition filed by Paul challenging the state's decision denying him pensionary benefits on par with a retired Supreme Court judge or an Election Commissioner. The bench also quashed the communication issued by general administration department principal secretary and the govt order dated May 29, 2014, which had fixed the service and pension benefits for state information a retired IPS officer who was appointed as SCIC in 2016 and demitted office in 2020 upon attaining the age of 65 years, claimed pensionary benefits in accordance with Section 16 of the Right to Information Act , 2005. He contended that these benefits should be equivalent to those of a retired Supreme Court judge or an Election Commissioner. The govt responded that it was not in a position to consider his claim, stating that he was only entitled to the benefits specified in the 2014 govt order. It also pointed out that the RTI Act was amended in 2019, and as per the amendment, the salaries, allowances and other terms and conditions of service of the state chief information commissioner and state information commissioners shall be prescribed by the central reviewing the records, the single bench observed that although the RTI Act was amended in 2019, it explicitly stated that appointments made before the amendment would not be affected. HC further held that the 2014 govt order relating to the service and benefits of state information commissioners must be set aside, as it seeks to depart from the statutory provisions. The court emphasised that no govt order, notification, or circular can substitute statutory rules framed under the authority of law.
