This year, 1,51,436 engineering seats available in Karnataka
This includes 71,303 seats under government quota, 31,703 seats under COMED-K quota, and 5,765 seats under super numerary quota.
Compared to the previous year, this year the total number of engineering seats has increased by 10,427. During 2024-25 academic year, a total of 1,41,009 seats were available.
Like every year, this year too there are a large number of seats are available in Computer Science and Engineering (CSE) courses. This time, a total of 38,178 CSE seats are available; last year, it was 33,573 CSE seats. In addition, 20,208 seats in Electronics and Communication engineering, 9,108 Information Science and Engineering and 8,960 Mechanical Engineering seats are available this year.
A total of 6,255 seats are available in Government Engineering Colleges. There are a total of 2,950 seats in aided engineering colleges, 95,236 seats in private unaided colleges, 10,440 seats in minority engineering colleges, 760 seats in University of Visvesvaraya College Engineering (UVCE), 33,120 seats in private universities, 2,280 seats in deemed universities and 395 seats available in government colleges with higher fees.
The State government has not given a no-objection certificate for an increase in intake for two colleges that were suspected to be part of the engineering seat blocking scam last year. BMS College of Engineering had applied for 120 more seats in Computer Science, and New Horizon College of Engineering had applied for 240 Artificial Intelligence and 660 CSE seats.
This year, a total of 2,75,677 students qualified in the Common Entrance Test (CET-2025), and 2,62,195 for engineering stream. Last year it was 2.74 lakh students who qualified to get into engineering courses.
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The Hindu
3 hours ago
- The Hindu
Duration of the CSE exam cannot be curtailed, the UPSC says
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has informed a parliamentary panel that the duration of the one-year long Civil Services Examination (CSE) cannot be curtailed. The time cycle for the CSE had been optimised to the extent possible, despite an increase in the number of candidates, centres and venues over the years, following a detailed analysis of the time taken in the pre-examination and post examination activities, the Commission said. 'One of the most vital factors that go into the determination of the time schedule of an examination is the need to maintain the utmost confidentiality and integrity of the examination process. Various checks and balances have been integrated in the examination system, which have been gained through years of experience to eliminate the risk to confidentiality and integrity,' the UPSC said in its reply to the the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice. The reply is mentioned in the 154th Report on Action Taken on the 131st Report on 'Review of Functioning of Recruitment Organisations of Government of India' pertaining to the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, tabled in the Rajya Sabha on August 8. The CSE is conducted in three stages — the Preliminary Examination (objective type), the Civil Services (Mains) Examination (descriptive type), and Personality Test/Interview. The exams are held to recruit officers for 19 civil services, including the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), the Indian Police Service (IPS), and the Indian Foreign Service (IFS). In accordance with the current trend, the number of applications for the Preliminary Examination was over one million every year, the UPSC said. The 2023 Examination was held at 79 centres across the country, with 2,538 venues to accommodate 10.27 lakh candidates. The gap between the three phases of the exam had been within a range of around two-and-a-half to three months, the UPSC said, adding that there was hardly any scope to further compress the time between the date of advertisement or notification of the CSE, and the date of holding it. Evaluation of nine descriptive-type answer scripts took more time, that is, over two months, as nearly 1.20 lakh answer sheets in different subjects were evaluated by different teams of experts, the UPSC said. The parliamentary panel had recommended a comprehensive re-examination of the civil services recruitment framework, stressing that the process be rationalised and streamlined. 'At present, the examination cycle stretches across almost an entire year,' the panel said. The Parliamentary Standing Committee had asked the Department of Personnel and Training to establish a clear timeline for the implementation of the Baswan Committee's reforms. In 2015, an expert committee, chaired by B.S. Baswan, former Secretary, Ministry of Education, was constituted to comprehensively examine the various issues regarding the CSE, including a high rate of absenteeism among the applicants to the exam. The panel said that UPSC should explore the feasibility of declaring the answer key to the Preliminary exam after the exam was over, instead of publishing it after the declaration of the final results. 'Candidates should be allowed to raise objections at this stage only, and on that basis, any discrepancies related to the answer key of the Preliminary examination should be resolved. This should be taken into account before publishing the results of candidates qualifying for the next stage, i.e., the Civil Services Mains examination,' the panel said. The UPSC said it had an online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep) on its website, where candidates could submit their views on any aspect of a question. The Commission released the answer key after the completion of the entire process, a policy it followed in all examinations, which had been working smoothly. 'As the above system of disclosing keys after the final result of the Examination is working fine since inception and serving the larger public interest very well, no requirement is felt to change the same,' the UPSC said. The matter is sub judice in the Supreme Court, the UPSC told the parliamentary panel.
Hindustan Times
6 hours ago
- Hindustan Times
Appointment of full-time VCs likely in all state universities by end of Aug: Bengal minister
Kolkata, West Bengal Education Minister Bratya Basu on Thursday said full-time vice-chancellors are expected to be appointed by this month in all state-run and state-aided universities, where interim VCs were functioning. Appointment of full-time VCs likely in all state universities by end of Aug: Bengal minister Governor C V Ananda Bose had appointed several interim VCs, following the expiry of the terms of vice-chancellors at various varsities, including the Calcutta University. Asked about the row over scheduling of UG semester-level law exams on August 28, which also happens to be the foundation day of the TMC students' wing, Basu told reporters, "You will hopefully get permanent VCs at all universities – where interim VCs are functioning – by end of August. Who knows, if not by that date itself." On the issue of delay in publication of the West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination results, he said, "In the wake of the August 7 order of the Calcutta High Court, we are worried over the delay as it is caught in a judicial logjam. We hope the issue is resolved on the judicial front at the earliest. Our lawyers are working on it." The court had stayed the announcement of the WBJEE-2025 results and instructed the WBJEE Board to create a new merit list with a seven per cent reservation for the 66 OBC categories recognised by the state before 2010, and publish it within 15 days. The HC had found the WBJEE Board's initial merit list to be in violation of its previous order in May regarding OBC reservations. Asked to comment on the arrest of Jadavpur University alumnus Hindol Majumdar for allegedly plotting an attack on Basu's convoy on the JU campus, the minister said, "I have no information about this. I think this is entirely in the domain of the police. I have no comments to offer." Majumdar was arrested on Wednesday morning after landing in India, for allegedly planning an attack on Basu's convoy on March 1. This article was generated from an automated news agency feed without modifications to text.
Indian Express
7 hours ago
- Indian Express
UPSC Key: India-Singapore ties, Agnipath scheme, and Income Tax Bill 2025
Important topics and their relevance in UPSC CSE exam for August 14, 2025. If you missed the August 13, 2025, UPSC CSE exam key from the Indian Express, read it here. Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance. Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India's interests. What's the ongoing story: INDIA AND Singapore on Wednesday finalised around ten as the top ministers from both sides met in Delhi, ahead of a possible visit by Singapore's Prime Minister Lawrence Wong next month. Key Points to Ponder: — What is the history of India-Singapore relations? — What are the areas of cooperation between both the countries? — What is the Act East policy? — How is Singapore an important facilitator of India's Act East policy? — In the light of India's semiconductor push, what is the significance of Singapore for India? Key Takeaways: — Pacts were signed on areas including connectivity, digitalisation, healthcare and medicine, skills development and advanced technology, an official statement said. — External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar, Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman and Electronics and Information Technology Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw held the India-Singapore Ministerial Roundtable with six Singaporean ministers. — At the third ISMR, the two sides are also understood to have deliberated on an ambitious proposal to lay an undersea cable to carry solar energy from India to Singapore that will also provide data connectivity. — An Indian statement said the two sides reviewed the progress of various bilateral cooperation initiatives under the six pillars of the ISMR — advanced manufacturing, connectivity, digitalisation, healthcare and medicine, skills development and sustainability. — It said India views Singapore as an important partner in its 'Act East' policy. The inaugural ISMR was held in New Delhi in September 2022 and the second meeting was held in Singapore in August 2024. Do You Know: — Underlining the strategic partnership between India and Singapore, Modi said in his visit to Singapore last year: 'Over the past 10 years, our trade has more than doubled. Mutual investment has increased almost threefold to cross US$150 billion. Singapore was the first country with which we launched the UPI person-to-person payment facility.' Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Singapore & Semiconductors Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme: (1) What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north? (UPSC CSE 2014) 1. Bangkok 2. Hanoi 3. Jakarta 4. Singapore Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 (b) 3 – 2 – 4 – 1 (c) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2 (d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1 Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance. Main Examination: General Studies-III: Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment. What's the ongoing story: A new draft on the plastics treaty shared Wednesday on the penultimate day of the global negotiations has left out provisions on plastic production cuts, chemicals of concerns, and no clear definition of plastics, threatening to derail consensus on an agreement. Around 190 countries have assembled in Geneva to negotiate the first-ever treaty to end plastic pollution. Key Points to Ponder: — Read about plastics and their different categories. — Why is a global plastic treaty required? — What are the challenges faced by global leaders in drafting a legally binding treaty to address plastic pollution. — What is the significance of the Global Plastic Treaty in the context of international environmental agreements? — What is India's position on the plastics treaty? — Read about the Plastic Waste Management Rule 2021. Key Takeaways: — The talks in Geneva reached a critical point as the chair of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC), leading the task to thrash out a treaty, shared the draft at a stocktake plenary, drawing sharp reactions from several countries. Luis Vayas Valdivieso, the Ecuadorian diplomat chairing the INC of UN Environment Programme (UNEP) said during the plenary that he had shared a draft in his capacity as the chair, capturing areas of convergence and disagreements. — The draft text and the procedural pathway expressed by Valdivieso drew sharp reactions from countries. The draft was unequivocally slammed by both, a bloc of countries pushing for production cuts and called 'imbalanced' and the bloc of countries led by Kuwait and other oil producing countries, who want to focus on plastic waste management. — Countries have been pushing to address the full life-cycle, which includes addressing upstream issues such as limiting manufacturing of polluting plastic products, prohibiting use of toxic chemicals, and including a list of products for phase-out. — India aligned with Kuwait and said there are some 'serious concerns' and 'fundamental elements' were missing, said Naresh Pal Gangwar, Additional Secretary, Environment Ministry. — In the crucial article on 'plastic products', the draft said that countries should take measures 'as appropriate' and 'in accordance' with national circumstances and capabilities to manage, reduce, or not allow import or export of plastic products. This was seen as a major dilution by several countries, who slammed the draft for being 'weak' and lacking any legally binding goals. Do You Know: — The Plastic Waste Management Rule 2021 banned the use of single-use plastics covering 19 categories in 2022. Single-use plastic refers to plastic items that are used once and discarded. Single-use plastic has among the highest shares of plastic manufactured and used — from packaging of items, to bottles (shampoo, detergents, cosmetics), polythene bags, face masks, coffee cups, cling film, trash bags, food packaging etc. — According to the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016, there are 7 categories of plastics on the basis of their recyclability. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Why the world needs a global plastic treaty Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme: (2) Consider the following: (UPSC CSE 2025) 1. Cigarette butts 2. Eyeglass lenses 3. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None (3) Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2024) Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which pone of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. General Studies-III: Role of external state and non-state actors in creating challenges to internal security. What's the ongoing story: The Armed Forces are discussing a reassessment of the Agnipath scheme, keeping in mind the requirement for an ideal ratio between technically proficient and trained manpower and a reduced age profile of soldiers in the military, The Indian Express has learnt. Key Points to Ponder: — What is the Agnipath scheme? — What are the issues related to this scheme? — How is Agnipath different from regular military service? — Do Agniveers draw pensions post-retirement? — What is the rationale for introducing the Agnipath scheme? Key Takeaways: — The services have been periodically reviewing the scheme — for recruitment of soldiers, airmen and sailors for a limited period of four years — ever since it was introduced in 2022. — While there have been discussions between the services and the Department of Military Affairs on possible tweaks, no major changes have been cleared so far. — However, according to sources, following Operation Sindoor in May, there have been discussions on increasing the retention of Agniveers, based on factors such as training, experience and expertise acquired by them in their four years. — The first batch of Agniveers will complete their four years by 2026-end, and a decision on making changes to the scheme is likely to take place around that time. — According to current rules, at the end of the four-year tenure, up to 25% of the Agniveers can join the services, subject to merit and organisational requirements. — According to sources, discussions are underway in the Army to increase this retention percentage — with the number varying in different departments. — While there are increasing efforts to procure and induct a range of new generation military platforms, equipment and modern technologies in the Armed Forces after Operation Sindoor, much of the discussions stem from the requirement of a bigger manpower trained to use them. — In the Army, for instance, most of such specialised training is done after Agniveers join their respective units after the initial six months of training at their regimental centres. — Earlier this year, Army Chief General Upendra Dwivedi had said that efforts to align Agniveers' leave policies with those of regular soldiers and to harmonise benefits in case of casualties were also being considered. — He also mentioned the requirement for technically skilled recruits and spoke about the possibility of increasing the upper age limit from 21 to 23 years. Do You Know: — Agnipath was aimed at recruiting personnel below officer ranks — soldiers, airmen, and sailors who are not commissioned officers — to the Indian Armed Forces for a period of four years. — At the end of this tenure, upto 25% of these recruits, the so called 'Agniveers', can join the services on a permanent commission (another 15 years), subject to merit and organisational requirements. — Aspirants between the ages of 17.5 years and 23 years are eligible to apply (the upper age limit was increased from 21), and the recruitment standards remain the same as with regular service, prior to Agnipath. — The scheme was announced in June 2022, after military recruitment was paused for two years due to the Covid-19 pandemic. — Agniveers draw a basic salary of Rs 30,000-Rs 40,000 per month, and are entitled to other risk and hardship allowances. — They contribute 30% of their monthly emoluments to the Seva Nidhi fund, which the government matches. At the end of their service, they receive approximately Rs 11.71 lakhs (with interest) as a lump sum severance package from this fund, which is exempt from income tax. — If they die on duty, their family receives a lump sum of Rs 1 crore (including the Seva Nidhi package), and full pay for the period which the soldier could not serve. In case of disability, an Agniveer can receive upto Rs 44 lakh as compensation, depending on the percentage of disability suffered which is attributed to, or aggravated by military service. — Unlike soldiers in regular service, Agniveers do not draw pensions post-retirement. Only the 25% of Agniveers who get absorbed into the forces after four years will receive pensionary benefits, although the initial four years of service will not be considered for these. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Explained: What is the Agnipath scheme and the opposition to it? Previous year UPSC Mains Question Covering similar theme: The diverse nature of India as a multi-religious and multi-ethnic society is not immune to the impact of radicalism which has been in her neighborhood. Discuss along with the strategies to be adopted to counter this environment. (UPSC CSE 2014) Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance Mains Examination: General Studies-I: Indian culture will cover the salient aspects of Art Forms, literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times. What's the ongoing story: During a discussion in the state Assembly last week, legislators across party lines demanded the legalisation of bull fighting in Goa. The MLAs said that bull fighting, locally referred to as dhirio or dhiri, is an integral part of Goa's cultural fabric. Key Points to Ponder: — What is the bull festival of Spain called? — How is dhiri different from Spain's bull fight? — Are there any constitutional provisions related to cruelty against animals? — What are the other traditional sports in India that involve animals? — What is the Supreme Court ruling on the Jallikattu festival? — What is the objective of enacting the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act, 1960? Key Takeaways: — In the book Goa, Cradle of My Dreams (1988) Nora Secco de Souza described Goan bull fighting as a 'less complicated' and 'less colourful affair' than its Spanish counterpart 'for there are no flamboyant matadors [in dhiri]'. — These bull fights have traditionally been held in paddy fields and football grounds of Goa, with village shepherds bringing in their animals. — Dhiri was a 'part and parcel of every Church fest' and villagers from miles around would gather to witness the popular sport in which 'two thorough-bred bulls fight each other'. — The bull that gets pushed out of the arena first or turns and runs away loses the fight, unlike in Spain where the animal has to die for the fight to end. A fight can be over in a few minutes or stretch for more than an hour. — 'It is a straight fight till one bull falls or flees. Often a bull is seriously injured,' said one bull owner who was previously involved in the practice. Bulls can even be gored to death at times. Agitated bulls may also charge at spectators, causing grievous injuries. — The bulls often had names such as (Mike) Tyson and Rambo (the famous Sylvester Stallone character), and had a devoted fan following, Gracias said. — In September 1996, Xavier Fernandes from Cana-Benaulim was killed by a 'violent' bull at a fight organised at Ambaji-Fatorda. After the incident, the NGO People for Animals filed a petition in the High Court of Bombay at Goa contending that bull fights were occurring illegally in contravention to the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. — The High Court subsequentlly found bullfights to be illegal and said they 'cannot be permitted to be organised'. The Court directed the state to take immediate steps to ban 'all types of animal fights including bull fights and 'dhirios' in the state of Goa.' — In 2021, a contempt petition was filed in the High Court, alleging that bull fights were taking place despite orders of the court. In April this year, a bull died during a bullfight in a paddy field in Betalbatim. In January, a spectator was gored to death at a bull fight near Benaulim. — Supporters and bull fight aficionados argue that bull fights are a traditional 'sport of Goa'. — 'There is no cruelty. It is a sport where the strength of bulls is put to test. It is like boxing. It can be regulated. The horns of bulls can be capped, but a ban goes against the tradition,' Francis, a resident of Taleigao, told The Indian Express. — In 2023, AAP MLA from Benaulim, Venzy Viegas sought an amendment to the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act to exclude dhirio, along the lines of a similar legislation passed by Tamil Nadu, which excludes the traditional sport of jallikattu from the ambit of the law. Do You Know: — A five-judge Bench of the Supreme Court on May 18, 2023 upheld the amendments made by the legislatures of Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, and Karnataka to The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act, 1960, allowing bull-taming sports like jallikattu, kambala, and bullock-cart races. — The five-judge Bench overruled the view taken by a two-judge Bench of the court in its 2014 ruling in 'Welfare Board of India v. A. Nagaraja', banning such sports including jallikattu. — Jallikattu, also known as eruthazhuvuthal, is a bull-taming sport traditionally played in Tamil Nadu as part of the Pongal harvest festival. The festival is a celebration of nature, and thanksgiving for a bountiful harvest, of which cattle-worship is part. — In 2017, Tamil Nadu amended the PCA Act to allow jallikattu in the state. The amending Act sought to preserve the cultural heritage of Tamil Nadu, and to ensure the survival and well-being of the native breeds of bulls. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Supreme Court upholds Tamil Nadu law allowing jallikattu: What is this decade-old case? Prelims Question Covering similar theme: (4) Consider the following pairs: 1. Jallikattu : Tamil nadu 2. Kambala : Karnataka 3. Dhirio : Goa How many of the above pairs are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues Mains Examination: General Studies-II: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation . General-Studies III: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilisation, of resources, growth, development and employment. What's the ongoing story: Parliament on Tuesday passed a new income tax Bill to replace the six-decade-old Income Tax Act, 1961. The new Bill removes redundant provisions and archaic language, and is likely to come into effect from April 1, 2026. Key Points to Ponder: — What is income tax? Who levies the income tax? — Is Income tax a progressive taxation system? — What is the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) remittances? — How has the new income tax bill defined virtual digital space? — What are the national pension system (NPS) and unified pension scheme (UPS)? Key Takeaways: — The new Income-tax Bill, 2025 was first introduced in February, and then sent to a Parliament Select Committee. On August 12, the government introduced a new version, the Income-Tax (No.2) Bill, 2025, incorporating most recommendations of the Committee. — The first draft of the Bill, introduced in February, had included a provision — Clause 263(1)(a)(ix) — that implied that taxpayers could only claim a refund if they had filed tax returns on or before the due date. The new version has removed this provision. — The new Bill also clarified that there will be nil TCS on Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) remittances for education purposes financed by any financial institution, a provision that had gone missing in the earlier version. — The Bill has corrected other drafting errors such as those related to inter-corporate dividend deductions for companies availing concessional tax rates. — The Bill has also allowed taxpayers who do not have any I-T liability to obtain a nil-TDS certificate. — The government has corrected the anomaly regarding donations linked to non-profit organisations in line with the recommendation of the Select Committee. Exemption has been allowed to NPOs for 5 per cent of the 'total' donation instead of just 5 per cent of 'anonymous' donations, as is the case in the existing Act. — The new Bill introduces the concept of 'tax year', which has been defined as the 12-month period beginning April 1. The concept was introduced in the first draft in February. — The new Bill removes redundant provisions and archaic language and reduces the number of Sections from 819 in the Income Tax Act of 1961 to 536 and the number of chapters from 47 to 23. — The government has, however, retained the contentious definition of 'virtual digital space' — the powers to call for information by income tax authorities during surveys, searches and seizures, including email servers, social media accounts, online investment, trading and banking accounts, remote or cloud servers and digital application platforms. — Separately, the government also brought in the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025, which amends the Finance Act, 2025. — The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill also extended income tax benefits under the market-linked national pension system (NPS) to the guaranteed unified pension scheme (UPS), by allowing tax-free withdrawal of lump sum payments or the accumulated UPS corpus, up to 60 per cent, at the time of retirement. Do You Know: — Overseas remittances by Indian residents under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) fell by 29 per cent to $1,964.21 million in February 2025 from $2,768.89 million in January. — Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, resident individuals, including minors, can freely remit up to $2,50,000 per financial year for permissible current or capital account transactions. These transactions include education, medical treatment abroad, purchase of property, and investments in foreign stocks. — The new I-T bill has defined 'virtual digital space' in the powers to call for information by income tax authorities during surveys, searches and seizures. — It defines a virtual digital space as 'any digital realm that allows users to interact, communicate and perform activities' through computer technology. It also allows tax authorities to override the access code to any said computer system, or virtual digital space, where the access code thereof is not available. — The National Pension Scheme (NPS) replaced the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) on January 1, 2004. — Like the OPS, the UPS provides a guaranteed pension. It aims to give stability, dignity, and financial security to government employees after retirement, assuring their well-being and a secure future. More importantly, the UPS promises retirees a fixed pension, unlike the NPS. This was one of the major criticisms of the NPS. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍Overseas remittances by Indians under LRS were down 29% in February to $1,964.21 mn: Here's why 📍New Income Tax Bill defines virtual digital space for searches, seizures Previous year UPSC Prelims Question Covering similar theme: (5) With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the 'Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements'. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Syllabus: Preliminary Examination: Current events of national importance, Economic Development Mains Examination: General Studies-II, III: Government policies and interventions, Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilisation, of resources, growth, development. What's the ongoing story: The much-awaited bill to amend the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) was introduced in the Lok Sabha on Tuesday by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, who said that the proposed changes are aimed at reducing delays, maximising value for all stakeholders, and improving governance of all processes under the Code. Key Points to Ponder: — What is the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)? — Read about the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India. — What were the first generation of economic reforms? — Why was the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code introduced? — What are the issues associated with IBC? — What steps should be taken to address the issues and challenges associated with the functioning of the IBC? — What are the key changes proposed in the amendment bill? Key Takeaways: — The proposed modifications include provisions to ensure faster admission of insolvency cases, an out-of-court mechanism to address 'genuine business failures', and introduction of group and cross-border insolvency frameworks, and a slew of others. — Introduced in 2016, the IBC promised an overhaul of insolvency resolution with the aim to rescue and reorganise distressed companies through a time-bound process, prioritising their survival as going concerns. — While the IBC has fostered a culture of accountability and credit discipline among debtors, its efficiency has been undermined by procedural delays, shortage of personnel, deviations from key principles, and slow implementation of critical provisions. — Although the IBC has had a few successes, it has been marred by issues like high case backlog, lengthy delays in admission and resolution, and steep haircuts for creditors. Over the past couple of years, various stakeholders flagged concerns and the need to rethink the IBC's design. — The amendment bill—referred to a select committee for consultations—is expected to help make the insolvency resolution process swifter and efficient, in addition to being in line with international best practices. The proposed amendments are to facilitate faster admission, resolution, and liquidation, maximise asset value, and improve governance. — One of the key changes proposed in the amendment bill is that an insolvency application filed by a financial creditor 'must' be admitted if the default is proven, procedural compliance is met, and there are no disciplinary proceedings against the resolution professional. This means that there will be no real scope for rejecting such applications on additional grounds, and the default would be the only real ground for consideration of an insolvency application. — The bill also clarifies that records from financial institutions are to be considered as sufficient and conclusive proof of default by the debtor. — The amendment bill also stipulates that the adjudicating authority — the NCLT — should strictly enforce the 14-day timeline to decide on admission of insolvency applications, and if there is a delay, it would need to 'record the reasons for such delay in writing'. Other Important Articles Covering the same topic: 📍With long delays and steep haircuts, chorus for revamping IBC grows louder ALSO IN NEWS This AI-tool will automatically generate minutes of meetings of gram sabhas, the primary body of the Panchayati Raj system, consisting of all registered voters of a gram panchayat. The visits are taking place in the run-up to the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit in Tianjin in China, where Prime Minister Narendra Modi is expected to travel on August 31-September 1. Delhi is following its multi-alignment foreign policy, and will be careful not to become part of an anti-Western grouping. Delhi likes to portray itself as a non-Western, and not an anti-Western country, keeping intact its strategic autonomy. Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for July 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at
