Govt set to table National Sports Governance Bill 2025 in Parliament: BCCI to come under its scope
Recurring litigation related to NSF elections and athlete selections
Absence of a dedicated dispute resolution body
Weak athlete representation in governing bodies
Gender imbalance in leadership roles
Non-uniform electoral processes
Financial opacity and mismanagement
Lack of internal grievance redressal frameworks
Court delays affecting sporting events
No legal status for safe sport mechanisms
Limited enforceability of existing code provisions
Clarifying Misconceptions
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The Central government is preparing to introduce the long-anticipated National Sports Governance Bill 2025 in Parliament on Wednesday. This landmark legislation is aimed at establishing a legal framework to ensure transparent and fair functioning of National Sports Federations (NSFs), while also enhancing athlete protection through safe sport protocols and grievance redressal systems.The bill seeks to promote sports ethics, safeguard athletes' interests, and resolve administrative disputes through a standardized governance structure for NSFs. In a parallel move, the government will also present the National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025 in the Lok Sabha. This amendment intends to align India's anti-doping laws with the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) Code and global norms. It will also ensure independence for both the Anti-Doping Disciplinary Panel (ADDP) and the Anti-Doping Appeals Panel (ADAP).This legislative step marks a significant achievement for the BJP-led NDA government. The governance bill had earlier been returned twice by the Cabinet and once by Parliament due to lack of consensus.BCCI Brought Under the Governance UmbrellaOne of the most notable provisions in the bill is that the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) will be recognised as an NSF, and thus be subject to the same governance framework. The BCCI, like all federations, will be required to seek annual recognition once the bill becomes law. All its ongoing and future legal disputes will be handled by the newly proposed National Sports Tribunal As per the bill, neither the BCCI nor its affiliated state associations will be allowed to approach courts directly in case of disputes. Post its scheduled elections in September, the board will have to apply for recognition from the upcoming National Sports Board, even though it does not receive government funding.A senior ministry official clarified: 'Like all NSFs, the BCCI will have to comply with the law of the land once the bill becomes an Act. The Board doesn't take ministry funding but an Act of Parliament applies to them. They will remain an autonomous body like all other NSFs but their disputes, if any, will also come to the National Sports Tribunal which will become the dispute resolution body for sports matters ranging from elections to selection. However, this bill does not mean govt control over any NSF. The govt will be a facilitator in ensuring good governance, not an enforcer.'Ten Core Issues AddressedThe bill is designed to tackle 10 persistent issues in Indian sports administration The Ministry has sought to clarify myths surrounding the bill, particularly fears of government interference. The official noted: 'The bill ensures autonomy while enforcing basic governance standards.'Age and Tenure Relaxation ProvisionsThe bill also addresses long-debated issues concerning age and tenure limits for office-bearers of NSFs. It allows officials—including presidents, secretary generals, and treasurers—to serve their full term even if they cross the age of 70 during their tenure.If a person is elected to a position just before turning 70 (for instance, at 69 years and 364 days), they will be permitted to complete their full term.Regarding tenure, the bill proposes: 'The president, secretary and treasurer shall be eligible for election to the executive committee after a cooling-off period of one term, provided they have held the position for the last three consecutive terms. A term shall not be of more than four years which will be a total of 12 years (three terms of four year each).'A Step Forward in Indian Sports GovernanceThe introduction of this bill signals a transformative moment in Indian sports administration. It not only brings high-profile bodies like the BCCI under the governance net but also aims to institutionalize athlete-centric and transparent practices, paving the way for a more accountable sports ecosystem.[With TOI inputs]
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Indian Express
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(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Explanation — The Union Home Minister moved a resolution in Rajya Sabha to extend the President's Rule in Manipur for another six months. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the imposition of 'President's Rule' in a state, removing an elected government. — Article 356 was inspired by Section 93 of the Government of India Act of 1935. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. — Article 356 empowers the President to withdraw executive and legislative powers of any state 'if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution'. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. — According to the provisions of Article 356, the President's Rule in a state can be imposed for six months at a time for a maximum duration of three years. Every six months, Parliamentary approval to impose President's Rule will be required again. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman or Speaker, or person acting as such, shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes. 2. The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one-fifth of the total number of members of the House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — The Chairman or Speaker, or person acting as such, shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes. Hence, statement 1 is correct. — Either House of Parliament has the authority to act despite any vacancy in its membership, and any proceedings in Parliament are valid even if it is later discovered that someone who was not entitled to do so sat, voted, or otherwise participated in the proceedings. — Until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the House. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. — If at any time during a meeting of a House there is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the Chairman or Speaker, or person acting as such, either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. (Source: Constitution of India) With reference to the panchayat elections, consider the following statements: 1. All the seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by persons chosen by indirect election. 2. The ratio between the population of the territorial area of a Panchayat at any level and the number of seats in such Panchayat to be filled by election varies throughout the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — There shall be constituted in every State, Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. — Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs. — The ratio of the population of a Panchayat's territorial area at whatever level to the number of seats to be filled by election shall, to the greatest extent possible, remain same throughout the State. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. — All seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by people elected directly from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. (Other Source: Constitution of India) Consider the following statements about the Ninth Schedule: 1. The schedule became part of the Constitution by the Twenty-Seventh Amendment. 2. It contains a list of central and state laws that cannot be challenged in court on the violation of fundamental rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation — The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in court. Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review. — Most of the laws protected under the Schedule concern agriculture/land issues. — The Schedule became a part of the Constitution in 1951 when the document was amended for the first time. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. — It was created by the new Article 31B, which along with 31A was brought in by the government to protect laws related to agrarian reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system. While A. 31A extends protection to 'classes' of laws, A. 31B shields specific laws or enactments. — The First Amendment added 13 laws to the Schedule. Subsequent amendments in 1955, 1964, 1971, 1974, 1975, 1976, 1984, 1990, 1994, and 1999 have taken the number of protected laws to 284. — When the Tamil Nadu law was challenged in 2007 (I R Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu), the Supreme Court ruled in a unanimous nine-judge verdict that while laws placed under Ninth Schedule cannot be challenged on the grounds of violation of fundamental rights, they can be challenged on the ground of violating the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. With reference to the preamble, consider the following statements: 1. The ideals behind the preamble were first laid down in the Objectives Resolution. 2. The preamble is 'non-justiciable'. 3. The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution replaced the words 'sovereign democratic republic' with 'sovereign socialist secular democratic republic'. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Explanation — A preamble serves as an introduction to a document and contains its basic principles and goals. — When the Indian Constitution was being drafted, the ideals behind the preamble were first laid down in the Objectives Resolution, adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1947. Hence, statement 1 is correct. — Additionally, the violation of any principle mentioned in the preamble cannot be a reason to go to court, meaning the preamble is 'non-justiciable' — however, judgments of courts can cite it as an additional factor in their reasoning, given that it constitutes the spirit of the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is correct. — The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, passed in 1976 when the Emergency was in place, replaced the words 'sovereign democratic republic' with 'sovereign socialist secular democratic republic'. Hence, statement 3 is correct. — The amendment also changed 'unity of the nation' to 'unity and integrity of the nation'. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 119) Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 120) Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 120) Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 120) Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 120) Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 120) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.
Time of India
an hour ago
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