Daily subject-wise quiz : Science and Technology MCQs on buck moon, Goldilocks Zone and more (Week 118)

Indian Express

09-07-2025

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Mains answer practice — GS 3 : Questions on spacecraft splashdown and renewable energy (Week 114)

Indian Express

21 hours ago

Indian Express

Mains answer practice — GS 3 : Questions on spacecraft splashdown and renewable energy (Week 114)

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative for the practice of Mains answer writing. It covers essential topics of static and dynamic parts of the UPSC Civil Services syllabus covered under various GS papers. This answer-writing practice is designed to help you as a value addition to your UPSC CSE Mains. Attempt today's answer writing on questions related to topics of GS-3 to check your progress. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for July 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at Discuss why rapid expansion of renewable energy capacity has not translated into substantial reductions in fossil fuel use and greenhouse gas emissions at the global level. Discuss the merits and demerits of splashdown (water landings) versus runway (ground) landings for crewed spacecraft with reference to recent missions such as Axiom‑4. Introduction — The introduction of the answer is essential and should be restricted to 3-5 lines. Remember, a one-liner is not a standard introduction. — It may consist of basic information by giving some definitions from the trusted source and authentic facts. Body — It is the central part of the answer and one should understand the demand of the question to provide rich content. — The answer must be preferably written as a mix of points and short paragraphs rather than using long paragraphs or just points. — Using facts from authentic government sources makes your answer more comprehensive. Analysis is important based on the demand of the question, but do not over analyse. — Underlining keywords gives you an edge over other candidates and enhances presentation of the answer. — Using flowcharts/tree-diagram in the answers saves much time and boosts your score. However, it should be used logically and only where it is required. Way forward/ conclusion — The ending of the answer should be on a positive note and it should have a forward-looking approach. However, if you feel that an important problem must be highlighted, you may add it in your conclusion. Try not to repeat any point from body or introduction. — You may use the findings of reports or surveys conducted at national and international levels, quotes etc. in your answers. Self Evaluation — It is the most important part of our Mains answer writing practice. UPSC Essentials will provide some guiding points or ideas as a thought process that will help you to evaluate your answers. QUESTION 1: Discuss why rapid expansion of renewable energy capacity has not translated into substantial reductions in fossil fuel use and greenhouse gas emissions at the global level. Note: This is not a model answer. It only provides you with thought process which you may incorporate into the answers. Introduction: — The world added about 582 gigawatts (GW) of renewable energy capacity in 2024, representing an increase of 15% over the previous year, according to a new report by the International Renewable Energy Association (IRENA). This was the largest annual increase in renewable energy capacity in any single year. — Currently, the installed capacity of renewable energy worldwide exceeds 4,442 GW, and renewable sources generate almost 30% of the world's electricity. — According to a new IRENA report, with the present rate of expansion, the world will be close to meeting its 2030 aim of tripling renewable energy installed capacity. This aim is deemed critical for controlling global warming and was included in the accord reached at the COP28 summit in Dubai in 2023. Body: You may incorporate some of the following points in your answer: — The rapid expansion of renewable energy may give the impression that the world has made significant progress towards fulfilling its climate goals. However, renewable energy has yet to displace fossil fuels on a global scale. — While fossil fuels accounted for only around 10% of new power installed capacity in 2024, their use is still increasing, according to the IRENA report. — Between 2012 and 2023, global power generation increased by 2.5% per year on average, while renewable energy expanded at a rate of approximately 6%. This has resulted in a continuous increase in the proportion of renewables in the power generation mix. However, fossil fuels today generate more than 70% of worldwide electrical generation. — In absolute terms, more fossil fuels are consumed today than ten years ago to generate power. To make matters worse, the growth in the consumption of fossil fuels is projected to last for at least a few years. As a result, greenhouse gas emissions have reached historic levels in recent years. — In some nations, particularly in the Nordic region, renewables make for a substantially larger share of overall energy use. However, the unique conditions found in these countries are difficult to recreate elsewhere. According to forecasts, by 2050, renewable energy will account for no more than 40% to 45% of total global energy consumption. Conclusion: — The IRENA report pointed out that while renewable capacity increased by 15% globally in 2024, in Africa it grew by just 7%, and that too from a very low base. Africa is where the largest number of people without access live. — China's management of the renewable energy system has begun to resemble the OPEC countries' influence over global oil supplies. Energy security has emerged as one of the most pressing problems for governments, prompting many of them to secure whatever option is available to them, clean or not. — The move to clean and renewable energy systems is not as simple as some claim. There are multiple levels of complexity that make the objective of reducing global temperatures to below 2 degrees Celsius appear more unattainable. (Source: Why increasing renewable energy alone can't solve climate crisis) Points to Ponder Read more about renewable energy and its sources Why do Nordic countries produce more green electricity? Related Previous Year Questions The adoption of electric vehicles is rapidly growing worldwide. How do electric vehicles contribute to reducing carbon emissions and what are the key benefits they offer compared to traditional combustion engine vehicles? (2023) Industrial pollution of river water is a significant environmental issue in India. Discuss the various mitigation measures to deal with this problem and also the government's initiatives in this regard. (2024) QUESTION 2: Discuss the merits and demerits of splashdown (water landings) versus runway (ground) landings for crewed spacecraft with reference to recent missions such as Axiom‑4. Note: This is not a model answer. It only provides you with thought process which you may incorporate into the answers. Introduction: — Landing in the ocean is the preferred method of returning humans from space, while some spacecraft do land on a runway, just like an aeroplane. However, the latter has unique requirements, necessitates more advanced technology, and is typically more expensive. — The spacecraft carrying Indian astronaut Shubhanshu Shukla and his three Axiom-4 mission colleagues splashed down in the Pacific Ocean following a 20-hour voyage from the International Space Station. Body: You may incorporate some of the following points in your answer: — Splashdown is often a simpler and safer alternative. When a spacecraft begins to re-enter the Earth's atmosphere at an altitude of 110-120 km, it typically travels at speeds of up to 27,359 km/h. There isn't enough time for it to slow down to speeds appropriate for a vertical landing on the ground. Additional braking devices and structures, such as landing legs, will be necessary. — It is safer to land a spacecraft in water, even if it is moving at 25-30 km/h – the speed of the Axiom-4 spacecraft at splashdown. Water's low viscosity and high density provide a far bigger cushion. While it does not guarantee a perfect landing, it absorbs enough shock from the impact to prevent damage to the spacecraft's construction, payload, or crew. — The other cause is the abundance of large open spaces. On the ground, the landing point must be exactly defined; in the ocean, even if the spacecraft is carried slightly off course by air or sea currents, there is no risk of colliding with anything else. — The capsules are designed to float in water. They are conical in shape, with rounded metal on either the top or bottom (depending on how they fall), similar to a ship's hull, that keeps them bobbing on the surface. Conclusion: How is landing done? — When a spacecraft re-enters the Earth's atmosphere, it decelerates owing to friction. However, extra precautions are required to slow it to a safe speed. One such method is to employ parachutes. Spacecraft often deploy two drag (or drogue) parachutes first, which stabilise the vehicle during re-entry and lower speed. These parachutes are deployed by the Dragon spacecraft at an altitude of around 18,000. — At approximately 6,500 feet, the drogue parachutes are removed, and the four main parachutes are released, further slowing the ship. — The spaceship does not fly vertically to Earth, but rather descends at an angle. From re-entry to touchdown, it travels 5,000-7,000 kilometres. During this period, its speed drops to around 25-30 km/h, which is safe for a splashdown in the ocean. (Source: Why spacecraft prefer splashdowns over landing on ground) Points to Ponder Read more about Axiom-4 mission Read about proposed Gaganyaan mission Related Previous Year Questions What is the main task of India's third moon mission which could not be achieved in its earlier mission? List the countries that have achieved this task. Introduce the subsystems in the spacecraft launched and explain the role of the Virtual Launch Control Centre' at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre which contributed to the successful launch from Sriharikota. (2023) India has achieved remarkable successes in unmanned space missions including the Chandrayaan and Mars Orbiter Mission, but has not ventured into manned space mission. What are the main obstacles to launching a manned space mission, both in terms of technology and logistics? Examine critically. (2017) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 3 (Week 112) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 3 (Week 113) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 2 (Week 112) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 2 (Week 113) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 1 (Week 112) UPSC Essentials: Mains answer practice — GS 1 (Week 113) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X.

Daily subject-wise quiz : Science and Technology MCQs on Pralay missile, SARs used in NISAR and more (Week 121)

Indian Express

6 days ago

Indian Express

Daily subject-wise quiz : Science and Technology MCQs on Pralay missile, SARs used in NISAR and more (Week 121)

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today's subject quiz on Science and Technology to check your progress. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for July 2025. Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at With reference to the Pralay missile, consider the following statements: 1. It is an indigenously developed solid propellant quasi-ballistic missile. 2. This missile is capable of carrying multiple types of warheads against various targets. 3. The first test of Pralay was conducted in 2024. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Explanation — The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) conducted two consecutive successful tests of quasi-ballistic missile Pralay from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam island off the coast of Odisha — The flight tests were carried out as a part of user evaluation trials to validate the maximum and minimum range capability of the missile system. 'The missiles precisely followed the intended trajectory and reached the target point with pin-point accuracy meeting all the test objectives. — Pralay is an indigenously-developed solid propellant quasi-ballistic missile employing state-of-the-art guidance and navigation to ensure high precision. The missile is capable of carrying multiple types of warheads against various targets. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct. — The first test of Pralay (which means widespread destruction) was conducted in December 2021. The missile is slated to be armed with a conventional warhead and will be inducted into the artillery of the Indian Army. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. With reference to the Synthetic Aperture Radars (SARs) used in NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar), consider the following statements: 1. Both the L-band and S-band radars can see through clouds, smoke, rain or fog, thus getting an unfiltered view of the Earth across all weathers and through day and night. 2. The S-band SAR uses higher wavelength microwaves, which can better penetrate tree cover or vegetation, and even sand or ice. 3. The L-band SAR has a shorter wavelength, is unable to go much deeper, but is good for capturing the larger features, such as crop fields or water bodies. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Explanation — NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) uniqueness is the two SARs that it is fitted with. Radars. — A number of SAR-equipped satellites are currently deployed in space. ISRO's RISAT (Radar Imaging Satellites) family of satellites, recently renamed the EOS series, carry SAR. Some of ISRO's other Earth observation satellites, such as Cartosat and Oceansat, do not use SAR. — The power of NISAR is derived from two SARs, one in the L-band and the other in the S-band. They are meant to record complementary sets of photographs for the same region at the same time, resulting in a hitherto unattainable level of detail on Earth. Both L-band and S-band radars can see through clouds, smoke, rain, and fog, providing an unfiltered image of the Earth in all weather conditions and at any time of day or night. Hence, statement 1 is correct. — The L-band SAR, which uses higher wavelength microwaves, can better penetrate tree cover or vegetation, and even sand or ice. It is, therefore, able to capture minute details of surface undulations, and can see through dense forest cover, for example, to map the ground below and measure tree trunk biomass, which is very useful for estimating carbon stock. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. — The S-band SAR, which has a shorter wavelength, is unable to go much deeper, but is good for capturing the larger features, such as crop fields or water bodies. It can observe crops like soybean, corn, sugarcane and provide information on their different growth and maturity stages. This observation will especially focus on India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. With reference to the pollutants and their sources, consider the following pairs: 1. PM 2.5 – Predominantly produced by vehicle emissions and thermal power plants. 2. Nitrogen dioxide – Produced primarily due to the burning of fossil fuels by vehicles, thermal power plants, and various industrial processes. 3. Soot – It comes from sources such as vehicle exhaust emissions and burning wood. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the above pairs Explanation — According to a new large-scale study conducted by Cambridge University researchers, long-term exposure to air pollution increases the risk of getting dementia. The analysis, published in The Lancet Planetary Health on Thursday (July 24), is the most comprehensive assessment of its kind, based on a systematic examination of 51 studies and data from more than 29 million people exposed to air pollution for at least one year. — The current study is the most extensive of its type, and it discovered a positive and statistically significant link between three prevalent air contaminants and dementia. — PM2.5: Predominantly produced by vehicle emissions and thermal power plants, PM2.5 is extremely fine particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometres or less. The study found that for every 10 micrograms per cubic metre (µg/m³) of long-term exposure to PM2.5, an individual's relative risk of dementia would increase by 17% from the baseline. Hence, pair 1 is correct. — NO2: Nitrogen dioxide is produced primarily due to the burning of fossil fuels by vehicles, thermal power plants, and various industrial processes. The study found that for every 10 μg/m³ of long-term exposure to nitrogen dioxide, the relative risk of dementia increased by 3%. Hence, pair 2 is correct. — Soot: Soot or Black Carbon PM2.5 comes from sources such as vehicle exhaust emissions and burning wood. The study reported that dementia risk jumped by 13% for each 1 μg/m³ of long-term soot exposure. The Central Pollution Control Board does not separately report BC/PM2.5 levels. Hence, pair 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. The term 'hypocenter' with reference to an earthquake refers to: (a) the location below the Earth's surface where the earthquake starts (b) the location on the surface of the Earth where it cracks (c) the location from where the seismograph measures the intensity of the earthquake (d) the location adjacent to the seismically prone region Explanation — A powerful magnitude 8.8 earthquake off Russia's Far Eastern Kamchatka Peninsula triggered tsunami waves of up to 16 feet, which had started to American shores along Hawaii's islands and off the coast of northern California. — An earthquake is an intense shaking of the ground caused by movement under the Earth's surface. It happens when two blocks of the Earth suddenly slip past one another. This releases stored-up 'elastic strain' energy in the form of seismic waves, which spread through the Earth and cause the shaking of the ground. — The Earth's outermost surface, crust, is fragmented into tectonic plates. The edges of the plates are called plate boundaries, which are made up of faults — zones of fractures between two blocks of rock. The tectonic plates constantly move at a slow pace, sliding past one another and bumping into each other. As the edges of the plates are quite rough, they get stuck with one another while the rest of the plate keeps moving. — Earthquake occurs when the plate has moved far enough and the edges unstick on one of the faults. The United States Geological Survey (USGS) says that 'the location below the Earth's surface where the earthquake starts is called the hypocenter, and the location directly above it on the surface of the Earth is called the epicentre.' Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. With reference to 'ham' radio, consider the following statements: 1. It is used for educational and knowledge purposes. 2. Communication can be set up between two licensed hams. 3. In India, individuals below the age of 21 are not permitted to operate a ham radio. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation — Shubhanshu Shukla, an Indian astronaut, used a ham radio from the International Space Station to communicate with schoolchildren in his home country. — Amateur radio, sometimes known as ham radio, is a licensed radio service that uses radio waves to create communication. Ham radio service is mostly used for educational and informational purposes, as well as emergency or SOS communications. Trained ham operators can establish contact between two licensed amateur radio operators using a designated frequency, a transceiver, and an antenna. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct. — Communication might be hyper-local, global, or space-based. In India, everyone over the age of 12 is entitled to use a ham radio. The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology issues these licenses. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. — In 1983, amateur radio was used for the first time on a space shuttle to communicate between space and Earth. — The ISS also contains a ham radio, called the Amateur Radio on the International Space Station (ARISS), which is frequently used to coordinate astronaut-student contacts. The goal of such exchanges is to encourage the next generation. — This teaching opportunity is supported by amateur radio organisations, as well as space agencies in the United States, Russia, Canada, Japan, and Europe, which provide equipment and operational support. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. With reference to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), consider the following statements: 1. It was established as a successor to INCOSPAR in 1969. 2. It is the nodal space agency under the Department of Space (DoS), which was formed in 1972. 3. Its core mandate includes designing launch vehicles, satellites, and applying space technology for societal development. 4. ISRO functions autonomously under the Ministry of Science & Technology. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above Explanation — Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the space agency of India. The organisation is involved in science, engineering and technology to harvest the benefits of outer space for India and the mankind. — ISRO is a major constituent of the Department of Space (DOS), Government of India. The department executes the Indian Space Programme primarily through various Centres or units within ISRO. — ISRO was previously the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), set up by the Government of India in 1962, as envisioned by Dr. VikramA Sarabhai. — ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969 and superseded INCOSPAR with an expanded role to harness space technology. DOS was set up and ISRO was brought under DOS in 1972. — The prime objective of ISRO/DOS is the development and application of space technology for various national needs. — ISRO has developed satellite launch vehicles, PSLV and GSLV, to place the satellites in the required orbits. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. (Other source: What are Population III stars? (a) the first stars in the universe (b) the recent stars in the universe. (c) the smallest, long-living, dim stars. (d) None of the above Explanation — The very first stars — so-called Population III stars — were unlike any we see today. Born from pristine hydrogen and helium, they were massive, short-lived, and intensely bright. Some may have been hundreds of times the mass of our Sun, burning hot and dying young in titanic supernovae that scattered heavy elements across space. These explosions seeded the universe with the ingredients for future generations of stars, planets, and eventually, life. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. With reference to 'reionization', consider the following statements: 1. It is an important phenomenon in our universe's history as it presents one of the few means by which we can (indirectly) study these earliest stars. 2. Scientists have recently discovered when the first stars were formed and when the reionization process started to occur. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation According to 'The energetic ultraviolet light from these first stars was capable of splitting hydrogen atoms back into electrons and protons (or ionizing them). This era, from the end of the dark ages to when the universe was around a billion years old, is known as 'the epoch of reionization.' It refers to the point when most of the neutral hydrogen was reionized by the increasing radiation from the first massive stars. Reionization is an important phenomenon in our universe's history as it presents one of the few means by which we can (indirectly) study these earliest stars. But scientists do not know exactly when the first stars formed and when this reionization process started to occur.' Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 119) Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 121) Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 120) Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 120) Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 120) Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 120) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub, and follow us on Instagram and X. Manas Srivastava is currently working as Senior Copy Editor with The Indian Express (digital) and leads a unique initiative of IE - UPSC Essentials. He majorly writes on UPSC, other competitive exams and education-related projects. In the past, Manas has represented India at the G-20 Youth Summit in Mexico. He is a former member of the Youth Council, GOI. A two-time topper/gold medallist in History (both in graduation and post-graduation) from Delhi University, he has mentored and taught UPSC aspirants for more than five years. His diverse role in The Indian Express consists of writing, editing, anchoring/ hosting, interviewing experts, and curating and simplifying news for the benefit of students. He hosts the YouTube talk show called 'Art and Culture with Devdutt Pattanaik' and a LIVE series on Instagram and YouTube called 'LIVE with Manas'.His talks on 'How to read a newspaper' focus on newspaper reading as an essential habit for students. His articles and videos aim at finding solutions to the general queries of students and hence he believes in being students' editor, preparing them not just for any exam but helping them to become informed citizens. This is where he makes his teaching profession meet journalism. He is also the editor of UPSC Essentials' monthly magazine for the aspirants. He is a recipient of the Dip Chand Memorial Award, the Lala Ram Mohan Prize and Prof. Papiya Ghosh Memorial Prize for academic excellence. He was also awarded the University's Post-Graduate Scholarship for pursuing M.A. in History where he chose to specialise in Ancient India due to his keen interest in Archaeology. He has also successfully completed a Certificate course on Women's Studies by the Women's Studies Development Centre, DU. As a part of N.S.S in the past, Manas has worked with national and international organisations and has shown keen interest and active participation in Social Service. He has led and been a part of projects involving areas such as gender sensitisation, persons with disability, helping slum dwellers, environment, adopting our heritage programme. He has also presented a case study on 'Psychological stress among students' at ICSQCC- Sri Lanka. As a compere for seminars and other events he likes to keep his orating hobby alive. His interests also lie in International Relations, Governance, Social issues, Essays and poetry. ... Read More

No Solar Eclipse on August 2, 2025: Don't be misled, says Vedic Astrology

Time of India

30-07-2025

Time of India

No Solar Eclipse on August 2, 2025: Don't be misled, says Vedic Astrology

In the age of viral social media messages and WhatsApp forwards, half-truths and superstitions can spread faster than fire in a dry forest. Recently, there has been widespread discussion and panic over a rumour that the whole world will go dark for six minutes during a total solar eclipse (Surya Grahan) on 2nd August 2025. Many people are worried, wondering about its effects on health, family, and spiritual practices. Let us clear the confusion today, using the unshakable foundation of Vedic astrology and the ancient Hindu panchang. The truth is simple and direct—there is no solar eclipse on August 2, 2025. What Is a Surya Grahan? The Vedic Perspective In Vedic astrology, a solar eclipse (Surya Grahan) occurs only under specific planetary conditions. The word 'grahan' itself means 'seizing' or 'obstructing.' Traditionally, it is believed that during a solar eclipse, the shadowy planet Rahu (North Node of the Moon) or Ketu (South Node) 'swallows' the Sun, dimming its rays and causing the phenomenon we see as an eclipse. For a solar eclipse to happen, three conditions must be fulfilled according to Jyotish Shastra: The Sun and Moon must be in the same zodiac sign (conjunction or Amavasya, i.e., new moon). Rahu or Ketu must also be in close conjunction (within a few degrees) with Sun and Moon. The phenomenon must be visible from the location in question. Without the presence of Rahu or Ketu in the same sign as the Sun and Moon, no eclipse can happen. This is the law of nature and Vedic science. by Taboola by Taboola Sponsored Links Sponsored Links Promoted Links Promoted Links You May Like Treatment That Might Help You Against Knee Pain Knee pain| search ads Find Now Undo August 2, 2025: The Real Planetary Positions Let us turn to the actual planetary placements on August 2, 2025. On this date, the Sun is in Cancer (Karka Rashi) and closely conjunct with Mercury. Rahu is in Aquarius (Kumbha Rashi)—nowhere near the Sun or Mercury. Moon is in Libra (Tula Rashi), far from both the Sun and Rahu. Ketu is in Leo (Simha Rashi), again, not close to Sun or Moon. Therefore, on August 2nd, there is no conjunction of Sun and Rahu or Sun and Ketu. There is also no new moon (Amavasya) in Cancer at this time. The essential planetary requirement for a solar eclipse is absent. In simple words, no Surya Grahan can take place on this date according to Vedic astrology. What the Hindu Panchang says about the Solar Eclipse in 2025: In matters of eclipses, Hindus trust the wisdom of the panchang —the traditional Hindu almanack, maintained by learned pandits for generations. According to all major Indian panchangs, there are o nly two Solar Eclipses in 2025: 29th March 2025 : A total solar eclipse, but not visible in India. 21st September 2025 : A partial solar eclipse, also not visible in India. August 2, 2025, is not listed as an eclipse day in any Indian panchang or government ephemeris. There is no mention of 'sutak kaal' or grahan timings on this date. No temples will close, no rituals are forbidden, and no special precautions are needed. What Should Devotees Do on August 2, 2025? Since there is no eclipse, you may carry on all daily activities as usual: There is no need to observe 'sutak kaal' or avoid any rituals. No need to change food or bath timings. Temples and homes can proceed with all normal puja and daily practices. Pregnant women need not worry or change their routine. There is no spiritual or astrological dosha on this date. If you still feel anxious due to rumours, take shelter in prayers and recite the Gayatri Mantra or Aditya Hridayam for peace of mind. Discover everything about astrology at Times of India , including daily horoscopes for Aries , Taurus , Gemini , Cancer , Leo , Virgo , Libra , Scorpio , Sagittarius , Capricorn , Aquarius , and Pisces . Read your detailed Horoscope Today and Horoscope Tomorrow here.

Daily subject-wise quiz : Science and Technology MCQs on buck moon, Goldilocks Zone and more (Week 118)

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Mains answer practice — GS 3 : Questions on spacecraft splashdown and renewable energy (Week 114)

Daily subject-wise quiz : Science and Technology MCQs on Pralay missile, SARs used in NISAR and more (Week 121)

No Solar Eclipse on August 2, 2025: Don't be misled, says Vedic Astrology

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